Prime number $n$ is given. The inverse number to $i~(1 \le i < n)$ is such number $j$ that $i * j = 1~(mod~n)$. It's possible to prove that for each $i$ exists only one inverse. For all possible values of $i$ find the inverse numbers. \InputFile One prime number $n~(2 \le n \le 10^6)$. \OutputFile Print $n - 1$ numbers. The $i$-th printed number should be the inverse to $i$.